NAME: ………………………………….

 

CARESA EDUCATION SERVICES

 

TRIAL  HIGHER  SCHOOL  CERTIFICATE EXAMINATION

 

2004

PHYSICS

2 UNIT

 

Time allowed – Three hours

(Plus 5 minutes reading time)

 

DIRECTIONS TO CANDIDATES

 

Section I – Core

 

*Attempt  ALL questions.

 

*Part A           15 multiple choice questions, each worth 1 mark.

                        Mark your answers in pencil on the Answer Sheet provided.

 

*Part B           Core questions worth a total of 60 marks.

                        Answer this part in spaces provided in your examination book.

 

*Write your name on your question book for part A, your answer sheet for part A and your question and answer book for part B.

 

Section II – Option

 

*          Answer one option only.

 

*          Questions are provided for the Astrophysics and Quanta to Quarks options only.

 

*          The option is worth 25 marks.

 

*          Answer the option on separate paper.

 

*          Write your name on each option answer sheet.

 

*          You may ask for extra paper if you need it.

 

*          A periodic Table, list of formulae and Data Sheet are provided at the back of this paper.

 

 

PART A.

Questions 1 – 15 are worth 1 mark each.

Mark your answers on the Answer Sheet provided.

Select the alternative A, B, C or D that best answers the question.

 

1.      A rocket is fired and after the fuel runs out follows a parabolic path. Which of the following represent the velocity and acceleration of the rocket at maximum height?

2.                  An astronaut on the International Space Station was orbiting the Earth and was apparently weightless inside the space station. The reason the astronaut appeared weightless was

 

A.                The astronaut and space station were outside the influence of the Earth’s gravity.

B.                 The gravitational force on the space station was equal to the gravitational force on the astronaut.

C.                 The space station and the astronaut were falling at the same rate.

D.                The space station spins to create artificial gravity equal and opposite to that of the Earth.

 

  1. A rocket is fired and is accelerating vertically upwards. Which of the following statements is correct?

 

A.                Its potential energy and its kinetic energy are both increasing.

B.                 Its kinetic energy is increasing but its potential energy is decreasing.

C.                 Its kinetic energy is decreasing but its potential energy is increasing.

D.                Its potential energy and its kinetic energy are both decreasing.

 

  1. Which of the following represents the slingshot effect?

 

A.                The use of a high-powered cannon to launch satellites directly into space.

B.                 A rocket swinging past a planet and gaining some of the momentum of the planet to increase its speed.

C.                 The launch of satellites by the space shuttle by a spring-type mechanism resembling a slingshot.

D.                A spacecraft approaching the Earth at too shallow an angle and bouncing off the Earth’s atmosphere back into space.

 

 

 

  1. An astronaut left Earth and was traveling away at 0.9 times the speed of light. What would the astronaut observe if he was able to observe a clock on Earth?

 

A.                The Earth clock was running faster than his own clock.

B.                 The Earth clock was running slower than his own clock.

C.                 The Earth clock and his own clock were running at the same speed.

D.                Depending on the observer, both clocks were running slower than each other.

 

  1. Which of the following most closely describes the motor effect?

 

A.                A rotating magnet will cause an aluminium disk to rotate.

B.                 A magnet will produce eddy currents in a rotating aluminium disk.

C.                 A current in the coil of a voltmeter will cause it to turn.

D.                Eddy currents in an induction cook top will cause it to heat up.

 

  1. An ideal step-up transformer has an input voltage of 12 volts in the primary coil and an input of 1000 watts of power in the primary coil. How much power is dissipated in the secondary coil?

 

A.                More than 1000 watts.

B.                 Less than 1000 watts.

C.                 Zero.

D.                1000 watts.

 

  1. The primary coil of a step-up transformer was connected to a switch and a   12-volt source of direct current. The secondary coil was connected to a voltmeter. What would be the reading on the voltmeter when the switch was closed?

 

A.                A steady reading of more than 12 volts.

B.                 A steady reading of less than 12 volts.

C.                 Zero.

D.                A very brief reading that would immediately drop to zero.

 

  1. A green laser and a red laser both have a power output of 1 watt and shine onto a metal surface. Which of the following statements is most accurate?

 

A.                The green laser produces more photons per second than the red laser.

B.                 The red laser produces more photons per second than the green laser.

C.                 The red laser and the green laser produce the same number of photons per second.

D.                The number of photons produced per second depends on the threshold frequency of the metal.

 

 

 

  1. A rectangular coil containing a galvanometer was pulled through a magnetic field at constant velocity.

Which graph below correctly indicated the reading on the galvanometer as the coil enters the magnetic field, travels through it at constant velocity and then completely leaves the magnetic field?

 

 

A.   

 

 

 

B.    

 

C.      

 

 

D.     

 

           

 

 

  1. A solenoid AB was connected to a galvanometer as shown. The south pole of a magnet was moved away from end A of the solenoid. What would be the polarity of the magnetic field induced in the solenoid and which way would the induced current flow through the galvanometer?

 

 

A.                End A of the solenoid would become a north pole and current would flow through the galvanometer from A to B.

B.        End A of the solenoid would become a north pole and current would flow through the galvanometer from B to A.

C.        End A of the solenoid would become a south pole and current would flow through the galvanometer from A to B.

D.        End A of the solenoid would become a south pole and current would flow through the galvanometer from B to A.

 

  1. Heinrich Hertz was the first to produce radio waves. How did he do this?

 

A.                He shone light onto a metal surface.

B.                 He used a hot filament to heat the cathode of a vacuum tube.

C.                 He shone sunlight onto an emitting antenna.

D.                He used an induction coil to produce sparks across a high potential difference.

 

  1. In Thomson’s experiment to find the charge to mass ratio, he fired cathode rays through an electric and a magnetic field so that they were undeflected. Which of the following statements about the electric and magnetic fields is most accurate?

 

A.                The electric and magnetic fields are equal.

B.                 The electric and magnetic fields are equal and opposite.

C.                 The electric field is stronger than the magnetic field to counteract the pull of gravity.

D.                The electric and magnetic fields are at right angles to each other.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What is the main reason that silicon rather than germanium is used in most present-day solid state devices?

 

A.                Silicon is more abundant than germanium.

B.                 Silicon is more easily purified than germanium.

C.                 Silicon loses its semiconducting properties at a higher temperature than germanium.

D.                Silicon is a better conductor than germanium.

 

  1. What would you expect to happen if a positively charged electroscope and a negatively charged electroscope were both left in bright sunlight?

 

A.                The positively charged electroscope would discharge before the negatively charged one.

B.                 The negatively charged electroscope would discharge before the positively charged one.

C.                 Both electroscopes would discharge at the same rate.

D.                The negatively charged electroscope would increase its negative charge.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

NAME: ……………………………………….

 

PART  B

The marks allocated to each question are shown.

Answer this Part in the spaces provided in your examination book

Show all necessary working.

Marks may be awarded for relevant working.

 

  1. A large cannon was used to launch an object into space.

 

(i)                 An object can escape from the Earth’s gravitational field when the sum of its kinetic energy and its gravitational potential energy is greater than zero. Given that the radius of the Earth is 6.38 x 106m, show that the escape velocity of the Earth is around 11.2 kms-1. (2 marks)

 

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(ii)               If the length of the barrel of the cannon is 100 m, calculate the acceleration that an object must have in the barrel to reach the Earth’s escape velocity. (2 marks)

 

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(iii)             Would it be possible for a cannon to fire an object into orbit around the Earth? Justify your answer. (2 marks)

 

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(iv)             Explain why this method would not be suitable for launching manned spacecraft to the Moon. (1 mark)

 

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  1. You learnt in “The Cosmic Engine” that a main-sequence star will expand to become a red giant when the hydrogen in its core has been depleted.

Compare the gravity at the surface of a main-sequence star to that at the surface of a red giant of the same mass but 100 times the diameter. (2 marks)

 

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  1. A rocket was launched vertically up and 5 seconds later the fuel ran out. The rocket hit the ground 5.75 seconds later, i.e. 10.75 seconds after launching. Draw a graph showing the velocity of the rocket as a function of time for the 10.75 seconds of its flight. (numerical values not required for velocity.) (3 marks)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. The Michelson-Morely experiment was an unsuccessful attempt to demonstrate the existence of the aether.

(i)                 Why did scientists at the time think that the aether existed? (1 mark)

 

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(ii)               What method did Michelson and Morely use in an attempt to demonstrate its existence? (3 marks)

 

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(iii)             What is the significance of attempts to demonstrate the existence of the aether being unsuccessful? (1 mark)

 

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  1. Observers on Earth noted that a spacecraft completed a return journey of 8.4 light years to Alpha Centauri and back in 10 years.

 

(i)                 At what fraction of the speed of light was the spacecraft traveling? (1 mark)

 

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(ii)               What time had elapsed for the journey according to observers on the spacecraft? (2 marks)

 

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  1. A rotating drum in a tannery is powered by a large, D.C. electric motor with a variable resistance in series with it. When the motor is starting up, a large resistance is applied and the resistance is gradually reduced to zero as the motor reaches its normal operating speed.

Explain why a large resistance is needed as the motor is starting up but no resistance is required when the motor is operating normally. (2 marks)

 

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  1. Describe an investigation you have performed to model the structure of a transformer to demonstrate how secondary voltage is produced. Include at least two safety precautions that you carried out.(6 marks)

 

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  1. Two parallel wires, each 1.0 m long and separated by 1.0 cm, each carry currents of 10.0 amps in the same direction.

Draw a graph showing how the force between the two wires changes as the distance between them is increased to 10.0 cm. (5 marks)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. (i) Explain the difference between the use of slip rings and a split-ring commutator in electric generators. (2 marks)

 

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(ii) Both of these require brushes. What is the function of the brushes?            (1 mark)

 

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  1. Assess the effects of the development of A.C. generators on the environment. (4 marks)

 

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  1. Discuss how shortcomings in available communication technology lead to an increased knowledge of the properties of materials with particular reference to the invention of transistors. (3 marks)

 

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27. A beam of U.V. radiation of wavelength 300 nm was shone onto a metal and photoelectrons were emitted.

(i)                 Calculate the energy of each photon of U.V. radiation.     (2 marks)

 

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(ii)               State what would happen if you

(a)    increased the intensity by shining two beams of U.V. radiation onto the metal and (1 mark)

 

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(b)    used U.V. radiation of wavelength 200 nm instead of 300 nm. (1 mark)

 

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  1. Sir William Henry Bragg and his son Sir William Lawrence Bragg were able to determine the separation of atoms in the crystal structure of nickel. Describe how they did this. (2 marks)

 

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  1. Describe how superconductors and the effects of magnetic fields have been applied to develop maglev trains. (2 marks)

 

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  1. Discuss the BCS theory of superconductivity. (4 marks)

 

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  1. Describe the structure of a conductor that allows electrons to flow freely.       (2 marks)

 

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  1. Compare the movement of electrons and holes in p & n semiconductors.        (3 marks)

 

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OPTIONS.

 

ATTEMPT ONE OPTION ONLY

 

Each option is worth 25 marks.

 

 

 

Question 33-ASTROPHYSICS (25 marks)

 

(a)    Identify a feature of the Moon that Galileo observed with his telescope.      (1 mark)

(b)   Discuss the problems associated with ground-based astronomy in terms of resolution and absorption of radiation and atmospheric distortion. (4 marks)

(c)    Beta Centauri is 120Pc away from Earth. Calculate its trigonometric parallax in seconds of arc. (1 mark)

(d)   Compare the appearance and production of emission and absorption spectra with that of a continuous black body spectrum. (4 marks)

(e)    How is the colour index of a star determined and in what ways is it useful? (2 marks)

(f)    A distant star shows two similar spectra, one being red shifted and the other blue shifted. Explain how a star can give this type of spectrum. (2 marks)

(g)   Explain how to determine the distance to a star by using spectroscopic parallax. (3 marks)

(h)   The two brightest stars in the Southern Cross constellation are Alpha Crucis that has an apparent magnitude of 0.9 and Beta Crucis that has an apparent magnitude of 1.26.

a.       How much brighter is Alpha Crucis than Beta Crucis?  (2 marks)

b.      Given that Alpha Crucis is 80 Pc away, calculate its absolute magnitude. (2 marks)

(i)  State two ways that a globular cluster differs from an open cluster. (1 mark)

(j)     The following is a Hertzsprung-Russell diagram of a globular cluster. Explain how such a diagram can be used to determine the age of the cluster. (3 marks)

                                                            H-R Diagram of Globular Cluster

                     

 

 

 

 

 

 

Question 34-From Quanta to Quarks (25 marks)

 

 

(a)    State one similarity between the Bohr model of the atom and the Rutherford model. (1 mark)

(b)   How did Bohr modify the Rutherford model? (2 marks)

(c)    The Bohr model of the atom was unable to completely explain the Zeeman effect. What is the Zeeman effect? (1 mark)

(d) The table below lists the main features of a nuclear reactor. Copy and complete the table by stating the function of each component and a suitable material for each. (4 marks)

 

Component

Function

Suitable Material

Fuel Rods

 

 

 

Moderator

 

 

 

Control Rods

 

 

 

Coolant

 

 

 

 

(e)    Radium, 88Ra226 undergoes alpha decay with a half-life of 1620 years to produce radon, 86Rn222. The respective masses are: 88Ra226 = 226.09600u, 86Rn222 = 222.08690u, 2He4 = 4.00260u. Calculate the mass defect and energy released in the alpha decay of a single atom of radium–226.          (2 marks)

(f)    Name an isotope used in agriculture and describe its use.            (2 marks)

(g)   Define diffraction. (1 mark)

(h)   Davisson and Germer demonstrated electron diffraction in 1927. How did they do this? (3 marks)

(i)     What proposal, put forward by de Broglie, did electron diffraction support? (1 mark)

(j)     How did de Broglie’s hypothesis explain the stability of orbits in the Bohr atom? (2 marks)

(k)   Assess the significance of the Manhattan Project to society. (6 marks)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

NAME:………………………………….

 

CARESA EDUCATION SERVICES

 

TRIAL  HIGHER  SCHOOL  CERTIFICATE EXAMINATION

2004

PHYSICS

2 UNIT

ANSWER BOOK

 

*Part A           15 multiple choice questions, each worth 1 mark.

Choose the best answer from the alternatives offered and indicate your choice by shading in the appropriate spaces below.

 

A         B         C         D

Q.1.     0          0          0          0

 

Q.2.     0          0          0          0

 

Q.3.     0          0          0          0

 

Q.4.     0          0          0          0

 

Q.5.     0          0          0          0

 

 

Q.6.     0          0          0          0

 

Q.7.     0          0          0          0

 

Q.8.     0          0          0          0

 

Q.9.     0          0          0          0

 

Q.10.   0          0          0          0

 

 

Q.11.   0          0          0          0

 

Q.12.   0          0          0          0

 

Q.13.   0          0          0          0

 

Q.14.   0          0          0          0

 

Q.15.   0          0          0          0

 

 

 

 

 

(l)     Discuss the key features and components of the standard model of matter. (6 marks)

 

 

Cockroft and Wilson bombarded lithium atoms with protons in a cloud chamber.Two alpha particles resulted from each collision. Calculate the mass defect and the energy released from each collision.

3Li7 = 7.01436u, 2He4 = 4.00151u, 1H1 = 1.00728u.

 

Platinum, 78Pt192 undergoes nuclear decay as it emits an alpha particle to produce osmium, 76Os188. Calculate the mass defect and binding energy from the decay of one atom of 78Pt192.

78Pt192 = 191.9614u, 76Os188 = 187.9560u, 2He4 = 4.00151u

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